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13 answers

Slavery in the sense you mean was abolished long ago..but what name do we use when we refer to Madonna buying her baby recently...another form of slavery really...

2006-11-02 03:05:49 · answer #1 · answered by geordie.lady 6 · 1 0

As people have said already, the economy in the north was not as dependant on slavery as it was in the south. However, another reason that it was abolished in the north but not everywhere else was that the founding fathers were trying to hold a young nation together. They felt that pushing the slavery issue too much in the beginning stages of the young country would ultimately tear at the cohesiveness of the US and the country would fall apart before it had a real chance to succeed.

2006-11-02 03:14:23 · answer #2 · answered by aviellesmom 2 · 0 0

Well in the North. There wasn't that many slaves in the area. Most were in the South.
The South was an Agricultural area. The South had a smaller population mass and needed slaves to plant and harvest their crops. Lincoln never intended to abolish slavery. He was going to contain it to the South and let it die its natural death. The South had given the time would have moved past slavery.

The North had slavery just in a different name. Indentured Servant. Same thing as slavery only difference is in Indentured Service you think you can pay your way out of slavery.

2006-11-02 03:09:49 · answer #3 · answered by JohnRingold 4 · 0 0

The North could be considered an urban environment and very industrialized, while the South was primarily agricultural. A comparison could be made about country's deep-rooted traditions versus the city's enlightened and progressive philosophies.

The plantations and farms were often huge, and crops like cotton had to be picked by hand. That meant a large labor force, and slave labor gave plantation owners a wider profit margin.

Additionally, most plantation owners felt that abolishing slavery would be akin to stealing their personal property because they did, after all, pay for their slave workers.

2006-11-02 03:08:37 · answer #4 · answered by ax2usn 4 · 1 0

It WAS eventually abolished in the entire nation, but in the North it was abolished sooner because the northerners didn't have large plantations like the south did. It wasn't abolished until after the civil war.

2006-11-02 03:06:27 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Lincoln gave speeches against slavery prior to being elected to Congress. A grass roots movement against slavery was well developed in the North prior to him becoming President.

At the time that he was elected, most of the Northern states still had slaves. His Emancipation Proclamation only affected those states in rebellion and did not affect any of the states in the Union or the states that had been recaptured prior to it being issued. Of course, the states in rebellion just ignored it but, the minute the war was over, all of the slaves in the Southern states became free by executive order.

The 13th Amendment, in 1865, freed all of the slaves in the North and the already freed slaves in the South. . The slaves were not freed in the North first.

2006-11-02 04:49:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Slavery contained in the U.S. became abolished in all states with the thirteenth change to the structure in 1865. you're pertaining to the Emancipation Proclamation of 1862, which declared the freedom of all slaves residing contained in the "accomplice States of us of a" that did not go back to Union administration by technique of January a million, 1863. lots of the Northern states, if not all, had already abolished slavery till now the Civil warfare.

2016-12-05 11:21:40 · answer #7 · answered by snelling 4 · 0 0

They wanted it abolished all over, the North abolished it but the South needed them still and didn't want to abolish it, so that's when the South wanted to succeed to keep slavery that's when we had our Civil War :)

2006-11-02 03:07:23 · answer #8 · answered by katjha2005 5 · 0 0

It should be noted that the slave economy of the South is often overrated. Slaves are not very motivated workers (obviously - would you be?) and are thus not necessarily effective at generating wealth for a slave-owner. Much of the South was more involved in the slave trade than the North at that time, and thus had a vested interest in the slaves (in the sense that they bought a good number of them) and wanted a return on their investment. Regardless of how absurd that idea is, it was popular at the time.

It was simply difficult to convince men who had purchased a lot of slaves that they should give them away for nothing.

2006-11-02 03:11:32 · answer #9 · answered by ? 2 · 0 0

You should do your own homework.

It was abolished in the North first because in the south there was a far larger economic dependence on slavery.

2006-11-02 02:59:25 · answer #10 · answered by jiganto 3 · 1 0

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