2006-11-02 01:51:53 · 7 answers · asked by DONALD H 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Possibly...
You can have an ex-parte divorce. This only happens if one party does not appear for divorce proceedings after being given a number of opportunities to appear.
The other way, would be if no divorce agreement can be made between the parties, and a judge signs the divorce.
2006-11-02 02:32:43 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It can be if the parties previously stipulated that the divorce would be uncontested and that the judge could then sign the judgment upon proper filing of the settlement agreement. The parties don't have to be present for the judge to sign off on the uncontested divorce.
2006-11-02 02:48:54 · answer #2 · answered by rac 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on if you live in a judicial or an administrative state. IN a judicial state, only the judge needs to sign. In either, if there was a hearing and you agreed to the final proposed divorce decree, it can be entered without your signature under rule 28.
2006-11-02 01:55:14 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
whats a devoice - did you lose your voice?
2006-11-02 02:00:27 · answer #4 · answered by 2LITTLEBADONES 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope.
"Divorce"
2006-11-02 01:54:25 · answer #5 · answered by Phoenix, Wise Guru 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are you saying divorce? If you are, no.
2006-11-02 02:09:28 · answer #6 · answered by Gordie 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2006-11-02 02:08:38 · answer #7 · answered by Mary Smith 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋