2006-11-01 18:26:28 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
Simple answer: patriarchy.
2006-11-01 18:39:08 · answer #1 · answered by coreyander 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because the word "man," if you do a little research on the English language, is just the basic root word for the human race. Males are the dominant gender, the leaders of humanity; of course, you wouldn't hear that nowadays.
2006-11-02 03:45:22 · answer #2 · answered by Leroy Johnson 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Man is a generalization of the human race. Woman are so special we get a name all to ourselves :0)
2006-11-02 02:31:26 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
simple when u kill a man it is killing of species or a human bieng and it applies for both woman or man so question of woman slaughter doesnt arise second no human being can think of slaughtering a woman keepin in mind that she has been created as a beautiful flower for a man so one sane person can think of slaughtering a woman.
2006-11-02 02:30:00 · answer #4 · answered by ravishr 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because man is intended to include both - MAN and woMAN. As in HuMAN? OK? So chill.
2006-11-02 02:29:14 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
contraction of huMAN or MANkind or even woMAN or MAN. It covers all bases.
2006-11-02 04:37:34 · answer #6 · answered by Mike J 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I suppose if you want to be politically correct, it should actually be "person-slaughter."
2006-11-02 02:38:57 · answer #7 · answered by crowbird_52 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
man refers to "mankind"
2006-11-02 02:28:51 · answer #8 · answered by cork 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No.
2006-11-02 02:27:59 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋