yes it is
2006-11-01 17:47:28
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answer #1
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answered by cawfeebeanz 4
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((LMP + 7 days) - 3 months) = Due Date
EX: ((January 1, 1996 + 7 days) - 3 months) = October 8, 1996
I worked in an est. date for you
((February 2, 2006 + 7 days) - 3 months) = November 28, 2006
Good luck -- Hope this helps
2006-11-02 02:16:39
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answer #2
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answered by bebegurl 2
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Yeppers, the gestational period of a full term pregnancy doesn't go by months (as in 9 months) but rather weeks...a "normal" full term pregnancy is 40 weeks. Which if each month had exactally 4 weeks in it would add up to 10 months, not 9.
2006-11-02 04:23:03
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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sounds right to me.
remember the estimate dob is initially based on the last menstrual period or conception date, if known.
later on in the pregnancy the due date may changes based on the baby's actual growth as seen on the ultrasound
2006-11-02 03:15:15
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answer #4
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answered by marmalade 4
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it is certainly possible. maybe during their intercourse, the lady is fertile that the reason why she got pregnant at that instant
2006-11-02 01:55:56
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answer #5
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answered by ms. carpenter 2
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Yes , that sounds correct. I would say he is the daddy
2006-11-02 01:52:10
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answer #6
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answered by notAminiVANmama 6
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do the math... that's perfectly normal and fair to say... remember, ultrasounds only give 'guess-timations' of due dates. BABIES COME WHEN THEY WANT TO... & THEY'RE NEVER LATE!!!
(sidebar: who are you to these people? i hope no one close... o, ye of little faith!)
2006-11-02 01:53:05
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answer #7
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answered by christian.renee 2
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That sounds exactly right!
2006-11-02 01:57:20
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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I would have to say it is possible!
2006-11-02 01:51:00
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answer #9
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answered by mncaida 1
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