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2006-11-01 13:17:19 · 3 answers · asked by 'deathspeed' 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

There's a mathematical riddle that claims to "prove" 1 = 2, but if you examine it closely enough, it turns out to be dividing by 0. Sorry I csn't remember the riddle.

2006-11-01 14:43:18 · answer #1 · answered by Amy F 5 · 1 0

No, 1 is 1 and 2 is 2. They are not equivalent. Even if there was some mathematical way to manipulate them into being equal, throughout there is some logical sequencing that would not be accurate.

2006-11-01 13:20:41 · answer #2 · answered by Jewelz S 1 · 0 0

1=2 only and if only 2=1


x=1
x=2

x=x then 1=2

2006-11-01 13:58:18 · answer #3 · answered by safrodin 3 · 0 1

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