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My mother has been dead for 15 years, and my step-father just passed away a few months ago. I have one step brother who says that my dad removed my mother's name from a deed of property they both owned. He said this property is rightfully his because he is the only living heir to my step-father. My mother bought and paid for this land as well...my question is, is it possible to have a deceased persons name removed 12 years after they have died here in California? He says my mother's name was taken off the deed in '03. Please help!! I'm very confused. Thanks.

2006-11-01 13:01:50 · 3 answers · asked by red 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

3 answers

It depends upon how the property was owned by your mother and step-dad. If their names were listed as John Doe and Jane Doe, joint tenants, then your step-father became the sole owner once your mother died. If that happened, once your step-father died, the land passed down according to his will or to his heirs if he died without a will. As a stepchild, you are not considered one of his heir if he died without a will.

You really need to go to the county courthouse to see how the land was titled when your mother was still alive. Once you have that information, post a new question on her stating exactly how the official records showed the way the land was owned, leaving out the actual names of course.

2006-11-01 14:12:29 · answer #1 · answered by Mama Pastafarian 7 · 0 0

A identify corporation can help with this. relatively a registered letter is sent to the guy and an quantity of time passes with out reaction. That loss of reaction will enable the identify corporation to petition a courtroom to do away with the guy's call as disinterested interior the valuables.

2016-11-26 22:50:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I would say being a property owner that you should talk to a lawer and see if you have a right to 50 percent of the property.Good luck.

2006-11-01 13:08:45 · answer #3 · answered by macki4 4 · 0 0

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