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If you know that for New Mexico specifically that would be very helpful.
Thanks in advance

2006-11-01 05:29:55 · 2 answers · asked by misj 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

2 answers

No. The parties need to either represent themselves in proper person or an attorney needs to be present. A paralegal can be there, but not under the pretenses that they are representing anyone. Unless you have a juris degree it is not considered legal representation - legal advice, maybe.

2006-11-01 06:51:43 · answer #1 · answered by Angel 3 · 0 0

It really depends on the type of arbitration, and the rules of the particular arbitration, which would have typically been agreed to previously. In general, I don't think it matters, but you should check with the arbitration body.

2006-11-01 13:40:04 · answer #2 · answered by straightup 5 · 0 0

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