Sex in a marriage was intended to be done in love and to produce babies.
If the husband forced himself and hurt her in doing so, then it is rape.
Biblically, you should not withhold sex from each other unless it is agreed upon or necessary.
Still, forcefully taking it would be sinful in that he should love his wife like God loves the church. God would never hurt the church he loves intentionally.
It is also sinful in many other ways.
mandy
2006-11-01 05:27:14
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answer #1
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answered by cking_pOise... 4
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Yes. No means no whether you're married or not. Some guys just don't get that. Also, making love shouldn't hurt; it's not an obligation, it's a priviledge and anything that causes your spouse to cry (whether physical, emotional or verbal) is considered abuse.
Women aren't just the victims of this - husbands can be too. Both should be jailed.
2006-11-01 13:20:57
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answer #2
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answered by Allison S 3
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while I don't know the circumstances regarding the case that you saw I certainly agree with the ability for women to charge their husbands with rape. Most often in order to prove rape in a marriage there is some vaginal trauma/bruising/ clear abuse. When you get married you do not agree to give you body to your husband any time any way that he wants. No means no, regardless of how many times you have had sex before. Rape means forcing someone to have sex, so if he forced her to do it against her will...then he raped her. case closed.
2006-11-01 13:22:03
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answer #3
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answered by lscrighton 2
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To me,no means no,whether it's a stranger,some one you know,or even your husband.The chances are that this woman wasn't just raped,but also abused by her husband,either mentally and physically for some time as well.
2006-11-01 15:37:08
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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yes i agree completely. just cuz the woman is married it does not take away her right to say no. the law that allowed a husband to rape his wife has been abolished so he should not get away with it. in my opinion rapists should be castrated
2006-11-01 13:23:59
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answer #5
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answered by Belosnezhka (aka Gex) 6
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Well yeah i guess. I mean they are married so they are supposed to have sex and everything, but if she said no that she didnt wanna have sex on that day and he forced her to have sex wtih him even though she didnt want to.. then yes, thats rape, whether they are married or not.
2006-11-01 13:19:16
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answer #6
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answered by Stepherz 3
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I would hope the woman would get compassion after being violated by her husband.
2006-11-01 15:54:18
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answer #7
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answered by already_enuff_spice_in_this 5
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I'd really have to know more details. It is possible for a husband to [criminally] rape his wife, though.
2006-11-01 13:19:11
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answer #8
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answered by ericscribener 7
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wow I read some of the mens answers to this and it goes to prove my point that most (not all) men are arrogant, chauvenistic, pompous, insensitive a s s holes.
2006-11-01 13:55:55
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answer #9
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answered by Boop 7
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Depends on what actually happened.
Rape is Rape no matter if you are married or not.
2006-11-01 13:19:36
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answer #10
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answered by Dove 5
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