2006-11-01 01:47:45 · 4 answers · asked by Dusty M 1 in Social Science ➔ Economics
Well by definition it would eliminate all financial incentives. If all income is going to be set equal regardless of effort. Why would I even get up in the morning. Its not going to make any difference on my income.
What about the nasty jobs. Who would do those jobs if they don't pay anymore than the easy jobs.
Don't see how equalizing everything could even work for a week. The only reason it lasted 70 years in the USSR is that people who didn't go along were shipped off to work camps in Siberia. Good luck, but equal distribution is also by definition unfair distribution.
2006-11-01 05:37:51 · answer #1 · answered by Roadkill 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The term "Equal Distribution of Wealth" is simpy a unachieveable proposition. It is an ambitious term often used by economists. Equal distribution of wealth is the result of incentive to work. In case if wealth is equally distributed it will not cause loose of incentive rather it will open new avenues for works. People will invest their income and will generate more avenues for works and production of wealth.
2006-11-01 10:03:58 · answer #2 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
According to anyone who knows anything about human behavior and economics.
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2006-11-01 11:11:36 · answer #3 · answered by Zak 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
probably conservatives and/or liberals (depending on whether its liberals or Liberals)
2006-11-01 09:54:32 · answer #4 · answered by AJ F 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋