The above statement is true for all values of 'n' IF 'n' IS AN INTEGER and is not true if nis a fraction cause 1^(1/3) has 3 values and so if n is a fraction it would have n values of which one is 1
2006-11-01 00:52:13
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answer #1
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answered by No matter what happens i ll... 2
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all n are ok.
This can be seen as follows :
take the log at both sides. This is allowed because both sides are always positive.
you will get then :
(2n+3) log (1) = (3n-2) log(1)
the log(1) = 0 , so n doesnt matter
another way of looking at it is the following
Define two epsilon-balloons around the 1^(2n+3) and 1^(3n-2)
Put a needle in both , and let them go to zero , now make the remarque that a balloon with a hole in it is topologicly equivalent with an interval , since both o=goes the zero the limit exists and is eqaul independent of the n-value. this concludes the poof
2006-11-01 02:01:04
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answer #2
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answered by gjmb1960 7
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All cases!
1^(anything) = 1
but if you'd like to take it one step further, then that actually means that 2n+3=3n-2
solve for n;
3n-2n = 3-2
n=1;
This answer would only make a difference if the base was something other than 1.
2006-11-01 00:25:56
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Thta the same 1 * 1 (n-times, n from 1 to no end) is 1. That's Algebra!
2006-11-01 00:20:20
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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the cases are when n belongs to the set of real numbers. I'm not sure about imaginary numbers.
2006-11-01 01:05:05
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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the equation is right, when n is substituted, the result is same.
2006-11-01 00:30:06
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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