e = euler's number (~2.718)
phi = fibonacci number (~1.618)
2006-11-01 00:09:21 · 4 answers · asked by cirdellin 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
this is correct
this is cos pi/5 + i sin pi/5 + cos pi/5 - i sin pi/5
= 2 cos pi/5
=2 *phi/2 = phi
for cos pi/5 = phi/2 refer below
2006-11-01 00:14:40 · answer #1 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It should help if you know that e^(i*a) = cos(a) + i*sin(a)
so your equation would become 2 * cos(pi/5)
Now you can work it out without your complex calculator - just a regular one.
2006-11-01 00:15:10 · answer #2 · answered by rscanner 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The formula is (41*100)/300 The reason is 1% of 300 is 300/100. You want to know how many '1%s' are in 41, so you divide 41 by 300/100.
2016-05-23 01:39:41 · answer #3 · answered by Johnna 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
use the identity 2cos(x)=e^ix+e^-ix
2006-11-01 00:14:28 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋