Arab numerals are from India and even the Greeks are said to have learnt Mathematics from ancient India?

Answer 1

Yes. It is the world famous mathematician, philosopher, statesman and Nobel Laurette Lord Bertrand Russell who writes in his widely read book 'History of Western Philosophy' at page 416, thus " About 830 A.D. Muhammad - ibn - Musa - al Khwarazmi a persian translator of mathematical and astronomical books from the Sanskrit published a book which was translated into Latin in the 12th Century under the title Algorithmi de numero Indrum. It was from this book that the West first learnt of what we call 'Arabic' numerals, which ought to be called 'Indian'."

But regrettably, even till date the children in the USA and the West are taught that Arab numeral is the mother of mathematics and the 'zero' was also invented by the Mesopotamian civilisation, what a false and unfounded thing is being taught to the children at large, even in the 21st Century! Even to Mesapotamian, Egypt, Sumeru and Phoencian civilisation through trading Indian civilisation was exported. The ancient writings by Persian and greek scholars bear testimonial to these historical facts. But the ignorance during the middle ages has gone deep into the modern elite and they do not want to change their misconceptions due false 'racial ego', if there is a phrase proper. The Webstar Dictionary / Lexicon has a chapter devoted on 'Arabic numerals' which is so misleading.


Syrian Orthodox scholar Severus Sebokht wrote in 662 A.D.. that Greeks and the Babylonians learnt mathematics from India. Brahmasphutasidhanta, a comprhensive treatise on Mathematics was composed by Brahmagupta of Gujrat in India in the year 628 A.D. Al - Qifti's chronology says,".......a person from India presented himself before the Caliph al-Mansur in the year 776 A.D. who was well versed in the Sidhanta method of calculation.

Al - Kindi wrote four volumes of 'Kitab fi Istimal al - 'Adad al Hindi' in about 830 A.D. (on the use of the indian numerals). That helped the subject to spread to West and the Middle East.

It is ridiculous that due to want of proper information even some of the youngsters of the West (above) who have dared to answer such a serious question have exposed their ignorance shamelessly. They do not know that the link between ancient China and ancient india lasted at least for 2000 years from the 7th Century B.C. to 1300 A.D.

Answer 2

It is true that the Indians and the Assyrians used mathematics before the Greeks and the Arabs. But the truth is that the Greeks are credited as the first people to use mathematics because they were the first to use mathematical methods to prove their mathematical theorems. For example the Pythagorean theorem:

In any right triangle, the area of the square whose side is the hypotenuse (the side of a right triangle opposite the right angle) is equal to the sum of areas of the squares whose sides are the two legs (i.e. the two sides other than the hypotenuse).

was known and used by the Indian mathematicians, but it is credited to Pythagoras (Greek philosopher and mathematician) because he was the one who could prove the truth of the above sentence. The basis of pure mathematics is the ability to prove the mathematical theorems. The Greeks were the first to apply this approach to the science of mathematics and that is why they are considered the founders of mathematics

Answer 3

India is as safe or as dangerous as the USA. While the northern states may be more unsafe than the southern states, India as a whole is a very safe country to travel. Choose the southern states of Kerala (God's Own Country), Karnataka, Tamil Nadu or Goa, the tourists' paradise. If you are too much concerned about your safety, avoid New Delhi, Agra (Taj Mahal), Kashmir.

Answer 4

Ancient Egypt, Mesopotamia and ancient India.
So not only India.
The first known use of numbers dates back to around 30000 BC when tally marks were used by Paleolithic peoples. The earliest known example is from a cave in Southern Africa. [1]. This system had no concept of place-value (such as in the currently used decimal notation), which limited its representation of large numbers. The first known system with place-value was the Mesopotamian base 60 system (ca. 3400 BC) and the earliest known base 10 system dates to 3100 BC in Egypt
So you are so wrong.If said numbers are form India.

Answer 5

no,indian numerals are from india,we do not know wether the similarity of the numerals of persia and indian are interelated, many countries have the same or very similar,and the ancient greeks may have a better grasp of mathematics than anyone, we know that in china a form of mathematics was being used before the greeks.
LF

Answer 6

answer to the first answer:

oh, come on, and maybe the ancient egyptians, who, with proof, (pyramids etc...) had very advanced mathematics etc learned them from the indians too..

maybe you should concentrate on how this knowledge was proccesed by more ancinet civilizations first...

the answer however is clear... i don't think that anybody could do advanced modern mathematics with the arab or indian mathematics...

greeks made a science out of it and took it to where it is now...
and of course if they learned sth from sb, it would have been no indians but egyptians and pelasgs instead..

end of the story

Answer 7

Yes and I heard that Jesus travelrd to india during his "walks in the wilderness" and that influenced his teachings..

Answer 8

The Greeks invented Mathmatics an Geometry, so deal with it!!!

Answer 9

Algebra came from the Arabs. ~

Answer 10

and ur question is..........