Ever heard of the "Village People" or "Boy George"?
They were there, just that the term "GAY" was not yet coined or in general use. They were still "queers", "fags", "lesbos", "queens", and other names.
Now, I wonder about the 1890's. Didn't they used to call that "The Gay 90's"? Matter of fact, didn't that all take place in San Francisco?
Now, it's all coming together!
2006-10-31 11:29:22
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answer #1
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answered by submariner662 4
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Um... there were gay people in the 70s and 80s, though it might have been called something else then. It was also a lot more closeted. And as far as anyone knows, it's been there since before recorded history. No one really *knows* how it came to be; lots of people (gay and straight and even myself at times) act like they know, but there's no conclusive proof for any of the possibilities.
2006-10-31 18:05:20
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answer #2
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answered by angiekaos 3
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Homosexuality has always been a variant of the human sexual condition. You're in error about there being no 'gays' in the 70's or 80's, or at any other time in history. The term 'gay' has become trendy in your lifetime, that's all. There have been homosexuals as long as there have been humans, and exist in historical records almost as far back as such records exist.
If you want more information about homosexuality throughout human history, try studying cultures in which homosexual preferences were considered part of the norm. Ancient China, Japan, Greece, Italy.
2006-10-31 12:03:50
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answer #3
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answered by functionary01 4
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gay people have been around as long as there have been people. how old are you? you need to read some history. why would you think we've only been around since the 70's and 80's? maybe because we've been more visible since then? because since Stonewall, we've been more vocal fighting for our rights? it's not a matter of "believing" you're gay....everyone is born predisposed to one sexuality or the other.
2006-10-31 13:29:15
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answer #4
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answered by redcatt63 6
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Honey, there were gay people in ancient Greece, in Spain in the 1700s, in Russia in the 1800s... it just wasn't called "gay" in the history books. A lot of the sexual diseases were actually caused by sailors coming from Europe who had practice gay sex, then raped people in the New World. This is not a new thing, it's just not taboo any more.
2006-10-31 11:26:25
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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There were certainly gays in the 70's, 80's, and waaay before. The only difference is that you didn't see them, because it was far less accepted, and hence more common because less people knew about it so they could discover their true feelings. It was hidden away, kept a secret. That's why we don't know about them from before.
But they have certainly always existed!
2006-10-31 11:24:58
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Who ever said there weren't gays in the 70's?
2006-10-31 12:01:19
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answer #7
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answered by renanpo 1
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There were, maybe they were hiding in the closet ? The earliest I remember studying that was WAY back in the days of early Greece/ Sodom and Gommorah- the tow nwas called Sodom- because all of the sodomy going on there. That's a lot of corn-holing. Not even Las Vegas is called "Gambling Town' or something like that !
2006-10-31 11:26:29
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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You need to do a little research before asking questions like this. Homosexuality has been around since the dawn of man.
2006-10-31 11:31:21
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answer #9
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answered by luvbuggies 6
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hahaaha! This was too funny, I'm sorry. I couldn't help it.
People who love people of the same gender, whether only physically, or physically and emotionally, have been around since the beginning of the human species.
www.gayhistory.com
You're only just hearing about it now because you're very young, but trust me, there was a world before you knew about it.
2006-10-31 11:26:01
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answer #10
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answered by Miss Cobra Town 2
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