I know someone has thought of this already but is there any evidence or research on this?
2006-10-31 08:04:38 · 10 answers · asked by logisticswizard 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
it would be completely out of control, a little bit of energy would equal tons of mass.
2006-10-31 08:08:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yahoo deleted all of my comments to the question
that I wrote within 1 month before.
The answer to the question marked as "Best Answer"
is wrong.
M= ec2 is the mass-energy equivalence of dark matter.
E = mc2 is true for ordinary matter and ordinary antimatter only, not for dark matter.
2013-10-29 08:43:20 · answer #2 · answered by Mardebaran2005 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Since time and space are kind of the same thing, a second is a unit of lenth. If you measured the speed of light in seconds/second, then c would be 1.
In that case, E=mc^2 and M=Ec^2 are the same thing.
But, if you use SI units, then E always is Mc^2.
2006-10-31 11:13:34 · answer #3 · answered by Shadow Fish 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Not it's not since if it were then
1 kg = 1 Joule * 1 m /s which is of course wrong.
It takes something more than pure imagination to create equations that really make sense and do not contradict one another.
2006-10-31 08:45:04 · answer #4 · answered by fanis t 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That wouldn't be possible unless you rewrite the rules of Algebra.....
There's no way in hell E=mc^2 is the same as m=Ec^2. If you try to rewrite the equation to solve for mass, you get m=E/c^2.
2006-10-31 11:25:25 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No - the equation doesn't describe or control the speed of light. It uses the speed of light to describe how much energy is released in an atomic explosion.
2006-10-31 08:11:36 · answer #6 · answered by Ralfcoder 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In any even the units are all wrong so you at least need to invent another constant - That is, it is not logical.
2006-10-31 08:17:46 · answer #7 · answered by bubsir 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
did you invent he second formula?
did someone tell you the 2 represented squared not "times2"
you didn't use the theory. e=MC squared.
where is the square root you had to use to to adjust the formula?
this may be your mistake..
2006-10-31 08:12:44 · answer #8 · answered by macdoodle 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No,its not possible,cause it would make M=e:c2..But its exactly tha same anyway
2006-10-31 08:10:51 · answer #9 · answered by eva.keiju 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
uh... ur kidding right?
2006-10-31 08:12:04 · answer #10 · answered by I scream for ICE CREAM!! 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋