I know of an instance where someone sought a divorce and received one; it turned out later that that person was under the influence of a mind & mood altering drug: Valium & alcohol.. I'm just wondering about the legality of a divorce occuring under those circumstances. IMHO I'm thinking that it shouldn't be legal and that the case should be reopened. The court should've asked whether or not the person was of sound mind and whether or not they were taking any RX's that could affect his moods & his mind. I'm interested in others thoughts on this scenario.
2006-10-30
13:43:02
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6 answers
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asked by
Brenda
6
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Marriage & Divorce
The divorce was an uncontested divorce and the spouse had no financial means of legal representation & was not eligible for legal aid help. No alimony or child support is/was involved.
The person I'm talking about was a Vietnam Vet and the meds were prescribed by a VA Dr---A Dr that was given the knowledge of the alcholism and the impairment the Valium was causing. Also, the person was impaired for a very lengthy time---which begain prior to the divorce preceedings and ended up years later with a brain injury as a result of the continued use of alcohol and valium. He now needs constant care. His medical records show the Drs continued with the Valium up to the date of his brain injury. He doesn't remember getting the divorce. He also doesn't remember most of the years he was on the Valium--a total of 7 years. It's a sad situation. The issue of remarriage has been brought up and proposed. As of right now, it's an open issue.... Thanks for the feedback everyone.... B
2006-11-01
17:04:55 ·
update #1