Why do we calculate gestational age (GA) from the LMP when we know that conception doesn't occur until roughly 14 days after the LMP? I know that it's convention to calculate the GA this way, but I don't understand why.
2006-10-30 12:58:23 · 3 answers · asked by knasky 1 in Pregnancy & Parenting ➔ Pregnancy
Not sure. My guess is because you know for sure when your period starts, can't find out exactly what day you concieve, even if you know what day you ovulated it could be a day or two after that you actually conceived.
2006-10-30 13:06:32 · answer #1 · answered by ♥Jenn♥ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i wud say bcos u actually know when ur LMP was, but that ovulation happens 14 days before ur next period. so ur ovulation date depends on how long ur cycle is. whereas studies show that on average babies are born 40 weeks after LMP. so for those 2 reasons i wud think lmp is better
2006-10-31 03:17:53 · answer #2 · answered by marmalade 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because they cant be for sure when you actually ovulated so they just go from the beginning.
2006-10-31 09:42:19 · answer #3 · answered by these r my people 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋