2006-10-30 12:16:11 · 5 answers · asked by moksha 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Actually it's IV-I (not VI-I) but that was cute nonetheless.
2006-10-30 12:20:51 · answer #1 · answered by Pretty_Bad_Logic 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4-1 does not equals 5 no matter what language u put it in when u take away 1 form 4 it will be 3
2006-10-30 20:45:39 · answer #2 · answered by cutie1017 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
everybody above made mistake.
it is impossible to prove that 4-1 = 5, whether it in arabic or roman or whatever number system.
2006-10-30 20:35:13 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In Roman numerals 4 is written as "IV". 1 is written as "I". When you subtract I from IV you get V -- the Roman numeral for 5.
2006-10-30 20:20:22 · answer #4 · answered by jered_gold 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
VI (4) - I (1) = 5 (V)
2006-10-30 20:19:30 · answer #5 · answered by JV 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋