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That is, if we agree that it is illogical to assume an answer in order to argue that answer (hence, circular logic), then isn't the use of logic (as a system of thought) itself inherently illogical?

Any argument for the use of logic would have to be inherently illogical (since the use of logic in such an argument would assume that which is being argued), and as such once the use of logic was argued for successfully, logic would demand its own supporting arguments be rejected on the grounds that they are illogical. Furthermore, if our very use of logic as a system of thought and a means of measuring the validity of other arguments is itself inherently illogically, isn’t it then possible that there are other fundamental truths to the universe that also can only be arrived at through illogical means?

2006-10-30 09:24:39 · 12 answers · asked by Thought 6 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

12 answers

Yes logc is ALWAYS illogical.
Godel proved it once and for all:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%C3%B6del%27s_incompleteness_theorems

2006-10-31 03:52:13 · answer #1 · answered by hq3 6 · 1 0

Yes, logically, logic in and of itself is completely illogical. Ever hear of the term fuzzy logic? Sometimes the only way to come to a logical conclusion is to dismiss the logic that had already been presented, thus making it illogical and allowing clarity of the illogical to allow a logical answer. Confused yet?

2006-10-30 17:19:41 · answer #2 · answered by Bunny 2 · 0 0

Logic is a basic term, and hence, needs to no verification. It's like, say, a line and a dot in mathematics. A line is a segement between two dots. A dot is the most subdivdiable part there can be, as it has no height, length, or width. Hence, the line exists in the infinite, and can be divided infintially, as it has no ends. But the dot is the end of the division,as it is the smallest portion of a line, but a line cannot be made of a dots since they have no height, length, or width, and...

Well, you get the point. Certain terms, in certain disscusions, cannot be defined.

2006-10-30 09:38:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No

Since you deduce an absurdity, you should look at your premise.
Circular reasoning is fallacious, but it isn't illogical. Assuming P is the same as stipulating a premise P, which of course entails P. This is an epistemological problem and is dealt with meta-linguistically. The syntax and semantic rules for First Order Logic remains untouched.

2006-10-30 17:57:52 · answer #4 · answered by -.- 6 · 0 0

The answer is yes.

A logical system is still arbitrary to it's user.
And who ever said that fundamental truths of the universe had to be logical?

2006-10-30 09:35:29 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Speaking of circular logic...

my head is spinning!

I think you answered your own question. It would appear that yes, logic itself is illogical! How's that for ironic? Thank goodness I'm illogical, it saves time. I always preferred emotion to logic anywho! Tee hee

2006-10-30 09:31:33 · answer #6 · answered by amp 6 · 0 0

The answer is no.

This is why they are 2 different words with opposite meanings.

2006-10-30 09:33:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

No, now stop smoking before asking questions.

2006-10-30 09:32:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Good point.

2006-10-30 12:32:46 · answer #9 · answered by Maus 7 · 0 0

Not if ur a Vulcan

2006-10-30 09:34:19 · answer #10 · answered by yahwhoon 4 · 0 1

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