2006-10-30 08:17:31 · 5 answers · asked by JIMMYZMAN_64 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
If you're referring to time dilation, the only experimentally verified form of time travel we have now, the equation goes like this:
Δt = ( 1/ sqrt(1 - v^2/c^2) ) Δt0
Which is to say that the closer you come to the speed of light (v^2/c^2) the larger a difference there is going to be between your experienced time-frame and that of an external observer. At the speed of light there would be an infinite difference - time would stop for the moving person, and an infinite amount of time would pass in the universe.
Hope that helps!
2006-10-30 09:05:58 · answer #1 · answered by Doctor Why 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
E/4i{ 13000000000 -*i(mc2 x y/e) - 3(99s+d)}
where d = the rotaional field of a worm hole - & y = the universal coeficient of expansion
2006-10-30 16:27:05 · answer #2 · answered by jackie j 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
t=v/d of course you must allow for the speed of light
2006-10-30 16:21:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
timetravel=impossible * impossible
2006-10-30 16:24:44 · answer #4 · answered by raven_revange 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
v/d=t
2006-10-30 16:38:51 · answer #5 · answered by Sox Fan 93 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋