Is it a) If two angles don;t have the same measure, then they aren't congruent b) If two angles aren't congruent, then they don;t have the same measure c) If two angles have the same measure, then they are congruent or d) If two angles are congruent, then they have the same measure.
2006-10-30 06:34:00 · 3 answers · asked by Sam D 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
the conditional statement would be: if two angles are congruent, then they have the same measure.
*To get the contrapositive statement you reverse the parts and make them negetive*
Therefore, THE ANSWER IS A
2006-10-30 06:38:17 · answer #1 · answered by Casey 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To obtain the contrapositive, you negate the statements and take the reverse implication. So, the answer is A.
2006-10-30 07:32:54 · answer #2 · answered by Steiner 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
enable A and B be statements with a fact fee (T or F) for each A "if and on condition that " B is the biconditional "bi" implying 2 circumstances they're a million. A "if "B 2. A "on condition that" B that's comparable as B "if" A ex a huge determination is divisible by potential of two if and on condition that it has a component of two |------------ A ----------------| |--------- B ----------| a million a huge determination is divisible by potential of two if it has a component of two 2 a huge determination is divisible by potential of two on condition that it has a component of two comparable as a huge determination has a component of two no count if it quite is divible by potential of two
2016-12-28 08:19:42 · answer #3 · answered by osuch 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋