My brother thinks 4. He says there's a way to balk a runner to first without throwing a pitch. Once you have 2 runners on, the one pitch of the inning can result in a triple play. If it's rained out after 4 innings, that's considered a complete game. Is this correct? I'm also interested in what the ACTUAL record is for the least # of pitches is in a complete game.
2006-10-29 23:49:00 · 14 answers · asked by Mike M 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
Wrong. A game MUST go 5 innings and there cannot be a balk with the bases empty.
2006-10-29 23:58:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
That is not correct. You cannot balk a runner to 1st, ever. A major league game has to go at least 5 innings, or the bottom of the 5th it can get rained out, if the home team is winning.
SO, the least amount of pitches a pitcher can throw, and still win a COMPLETE ball game, is 15. (One pitch to each of the 15 batters he would have to face over the course of 5 innings).
2006-10-30 01:28:51 · answer #2 · answered by brianwerner1313 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For a complete 9 inning game it would be 27 (1 pitch per batter per inning). For a game called after 4 1/2 inning it would be 15 if the team is the home team and 12 if the team is the visiting team. (the home team would have to pitch an extra half inning to make it an official game).
2006-10-30 08:08:21 · answer #3 · answered by Gigi & Tino 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeah - I think you have to look at wild cases vs. normal cases.
Somewhat normal:
Visitors would be losing after 4.5 innings, so the home team bats only four times. If you get each hitter out on one pitch then you would have only 12 pitches. This would involve a shortened game due to rainout for example.
Less normal:
You get repeated balls or strikes called for rules violations (delay of game by pitcher or batter). Or you have catcher's inteference before the pitch and the hitter goes to first, then you pick him off. I think there's plenty of weird crap like that that would cause 0 pitches.
Flippant:
Forfeit - 0 pitches, technically a complete game though? Could hav ea forfeit with no pitches for many reasons.
Cool question though!
2006-10-30 13:58:48 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answer is 13. A complete game is 4 1/2 innings and the visiting team pitcher would have had to have given up one run in one of the four innings the home team batted in order to lose. No balk when no one on base.
2006-10-29 23:59:28 · answer #5 · answered by jcbag 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
First of all, a game isn't counted officially until after the top of the 5th is played. Secondly, there is no rule where you can balk a batter to first base. So, that means that if you take on pitch per hitter, then, well do the math.
2006-10-30 01:44:24 · answer #6 · answered by Nestor Q 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
54 actually. If each hitter swings at the first pitch and makes an out, that would be three pitches per half inning; six for an entire inning. Six times nine being 54.
2006-10-31 13:10:41 · answer #7 · answered by Fells 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is possible though to have a ball called on the hitter for things like going to your mouth while on the mound etc.........theoretically, you could do this 4 times and have the batter walk, then pick him off base......repeat this process 3 times per inning and you are out of the inning without having thrown any pitches. odds are though you would be ejected from the game before even getting that far.
2006-10-30 04:07:36 · answer #8 · answered by jimmfo 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
13
2006-10-30 03:48:48 · answer #9 · answered by blueyeznj 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
15
get every batter to ground out or pop up on the first pitch you throw to them and win 1-0 in a rain shortened game
2006-10-30 00:38:03 · answer #10 · answered by J-Far 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋