English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

In 1994 Manfred Schroeder estimated that the probability of x failing is less then x to the -6000000 what is x

2006-10-29 13:21:44 · 11 answers · asked by ismosanga 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

please get serious beside the two points and give some explanations !! why would it be 1 ?

2006-10-29 13:33:14 · update #1

11 answers

1

2006-10-29 13:23:18 · answer #1 · answered by Pulsar 6 · 0 1

1

2006-10-29 13:25:14 · answer #2 · answered by Nerdybones 2 · 0 0

1

2006-10-29 13:23:44 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1

2006-10-29 13:23:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1

2006-10-29 13:23:14 · answer #5 · answered by Mr.Why? 2 · 0 0

Written this way so we can see the argument:

P(fail) = (1 / x^6,000,000).

This number, since it is a probability, must be bound between 0 and 1, so x must be 1 OR MORE. (i.e. 2, 3, 6.6 etc...)

2006-10-29 13:32:05 · answer #6 · answered by Action 4 · 0 0

Well, I would say 1. Or a very very small number.
I'm only in sixth grade, so I'm doing pre-PRE-algebra.

2006-10-29 13:35:55 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

The maximum tax rate on US citizens.

2006-10-29 13:24:30 · answer #8 · answered by brucenjacobs 4 · 0 1

10

Of course this has nothing to do with mathematics. It has to do with prognostication.

2006-10-29 13:29:46 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

A very, very small number...

2006-10-29 13:23:59 · answer #10 · answered by KnowhereMan 6 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers