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What is the rationale behind that even if the ball never touched any person?

2006-10-29 11:01:21 · 4 answers · asked by joelogs 1 in Sports Baseball

4 answers

its a fair ball

2006-10-29 11:03:40 · answer #1 · answered by He_Knows_Me 4 · 0 0

It depends on where it goes foul. If it moves into foul ground before going past third OR first base, the ball is a foul ball IF no player has touched it. If a player touches it and then it moves into foul ground, it is a fair ball.

Chow!!

2006-10-29 20:02:57 · answer #2 · answered by No one 7 · 0 1

Foul

2006-11-02 11:34:56 · answer #3 · answered by kflan39114 2 · 0 1

My guess: It hit the ground in fair territory, so it's a fair ball.

2006-10-29 19:02:22 · answer #4 · answered by Mary G 6 · 0 0

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