2006-10-29 10:34:21 · 6 answers · asked by harlequingirl1 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Good grief!Of course not!
2006-10-29 14:24:58 · answer #1 · answered by Jen 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No but rember that Hitler and Stalin agreed to split Poland after the take over in 1939. Stalin did not believe his Generals when Hitler attacked and it took him a week or so before he actually believed it. So in affect Hitler provided a means to increase the size of the soviet union.
Germany in the first world war subsidized the communists to over throw the Czar so they did not have to fight Russia on the 2nd front which then caused all those soldiers in 1917 to go to the Western front. Which goes to prove that if countries who mess with other countries almost always get bit latter down the line. Examples would be for the USA who supported Bin Ladden against the Russians or us supporting Sadam during the war with Iraq and Iran.
2006-10-29 12:23:54 · answer #2 · answered by svt 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think so. It depends on who you ask. The only legitimate reason according to Stalin was his army sacrificed the most soldiers and Eastern Europe was his "prize". Personally I think the United Nations should have guided these countries back into statehood.
2006-10-29 10:44:43 · answer #3 · answered by Fred F 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. It was due to the communists' propensity to create satelite states as well as spreading their ideologies.
Stalin took advantage of the situation when his red army advanced westwards from Russia towards Berlin.
2006-10-29 21:18:34 · answer #4 · answered by Kevin F 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This was agreed by Roosevelt and Churchill at the Yalta conference so the answer is yes.
2006-10-29 17:55:34 · answer #5 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
he did?
2006-10-29 10:41:18 · answer #6 · answered by cork 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋