assuming that the sex of the child is completly random and that there is an equal probability that the child is either a boy or girl ie 1/2.
Then its just the probability that there is one girl and 3 boys, so P(1 girl) = 0.5 X (0.5)^3
Acutally you would then multiply this figure by 4 becuase there are 4 outcomes: GBBB, BGBB, BBGB, BBBG
You could use the binomial probability formula where:
P(1 girl) = nCr X p^r X q^(n-r) where nCr can be found on ue calculator, p=prob of girl, q = prob of boy
Hence for our case:
P(1 Girl) = 4C1 X 0.5 X 0.5^3 = 0.0625
2006-10-29 05:57:08
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answer #1
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answered by sc0ttocs 2
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The probability of not having a girl is (1/2)^4 = 1/16
Therefore the probability of a girl is 15/16 , approx 94%
2006-10-29 08:18:19
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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if you have 1 child, it could be a boy or a girl, so having a girl is a 1/2 ratio. the next one will be a boy or a girl, so that is 1/2. if you multiply 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2, because they are having 4 children, and the probability of having a girl is 1/2, you get 1/16 or one sixteenth.
hope that helps!
2006-10-29 05:57:35
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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You can do a Punnett Square. MM for male and mm for female. You will see out of four half will be mm, which means girls. The probability is 1/2 for a girl and boy.
2006-10-29 05:55:10
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answer #4
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answered by greenwhitecollege 4
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The probability at each birth is 50% (In reality not quite)
If there is to be ONLY one girl, there are four options
BBBG
BBGB
BGBB
GBBB
each of these outcomes has a probablilty of 0.5*0.5*0.5*0.5=0.0625 as there are four possible scenarios, the probability of EXACTLY one girl is 0.0625 *4= 0.25
The probablilty of AT LEAST 1 girl is 1- (prob of BBBB)
BBBB prob = 0.0625
So The probablilty of AT LEAST 1 girl is 1- (prob of BBBB)
= 1-0.0625
= 0.9375
= 93.75%
2006-10-29 06:00:05
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Hi there,
The probability will be 1 - P(None are girls) = 1 - P(All are boys) = 1 - (.5)^4 = 0.9375.
2006-10-29 06:10:22
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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