2006-10-29 04:33:59 · 5 answers · asked by andy R 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
None, because the Roman Empire fell in A.D. 476. At it's height it included such countries as Britain, Spain, Mesopotamia, and even part of Africa.
2006-10-29 04:53:35 · answer #1 · answered by Soldier for Christ 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The roman empire had already fallen by that date, so none.
To the gentleman below who wishes that people really knew their history I might add that by 711 the eastern empire had moved so far away from Roman traditions that they were not considered part of the Roman empire and had now entered the Byzantine middle age period. The date of the end of the Roman empire varies but at the latest is thought to be 610AD. They may ahve considered themselves Roman but to objectively say that they were part of the Roman Empire is bonkers.
2006-10-29 04:40:45 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
The Roman empire persay ,was long gone by then
2006-10-30 04:39:33 · answer #3 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey ho, here we go. All of the previous answers are wrong. The Eastern Empire still existed and include most of what is now Greece and the Balkan States together with modern day Turkey.
Deep joy. Wish people realy knew their history.
2006-10-29 05:22:05 · answer #4 · answered by Chariotmender 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
the roman empire fell before 100 ad. the holy roman empire was france and germany
2006-10-29 05:03:56 · answer #5 · answered by catchup 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋