The timeframe that I am studying is the eleventh and early twelth centuries.
2006-10-28 16:13:59 · 3 answers · asked by ladywolf12580 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
In France, the territory actually administrated by the king was fairly small in size. The affairs of most of France were controlled by lords who's only link to the French king was their oath of loyalty and the ability of the king to call on the service of their military. In other words, the king didn't have very much control over the many lords who controlled most of 'his' land. Only shrewd diplomacy, common interests, or quid pro quo deals could be used to control the kingdom.
There was no real kingdom of England until the Norman conquests. Consolidation of royal authority was easy there because an overwhelming military force took control of all the small Anglo-Saxon kingdoms and instated a heirarchy with a ruler that could enforce his authority.
2006-10-28 16:45:14 · answer #1 · answered by oonamahambra 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
William the Bastard (later known as the Conqueror) invaded England successfully in 1066. He created an occupying power speaking a foreign language which was resisted by all the indigenous people in ongoing guerrilla warfare. He appointed new nobles or corrupted the old ones, all of whom were hated by the people they ruled. The French were more stable with indigenous nobles in control of all areas. All that was necessary to consolidate royal authority there was to make a deal with the nobles. William had to conquer his territory bit by bit.
2006-10-28 23:26:32 · answer #2 · answered by Duane R-H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
France is a far larger country and its borders were not well defined in those times. Communications were much more difficult and dangerous.
2006-10-29 02:08:35 · answer #3 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋