My father died many years ago (in UK), he had just remarried (he was very sick). His wife lives in the house and has recently decided to sell it and give the money to her children (not my dads kids). Can she do this? Are we able to make a claim?
2006-10-28 16:10:07 · 6 answers · asked by w s 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Unless your dad made a will specifically giving property to you and his other children, you probably have no claim at all, as the property passed to his second wife at his death (in all likelihood).
2006-10-28 16:14:25 · answer #1 · answered by urbancoyote 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the law states that if a person dies intestate then the widow receives half of the estate and then the other half is divided equally among the children.
2006-10-29 09:47:17 · answer #2 · answered by scotital 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I suggest you get an attorney in the UK to determine just how the property was deeded. You can certainly make a claim. It would be up to the court to determine if your claim is valid.
2006-10-28 23:14:30 · answer #3 · answered by saraphen 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the title to the property. If it is a joint-tenancy title, then the title of the house automatically goes to her upon your father's death. This means that she will be entitled to dispose it as she deems fit.
You should speak to a lawyer quickly.
2006-10-30 03:53:33 · answer #4 · answered by pengsanking 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If he made a will out leaving it to her, yes. It would really be unfair of her not to share with all of you but some people don't see it that way.
2006-10-29 00:22:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
you need to contact lawyer. doubt if one is on here. also you will apparently need one in UK. this is the US board
2006-10-28 23:14:00 · answer #6 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋