One of the primary aims of marriage is to have sex at anytime one wants it where possible. Then how can a woman cliam that the husband raped her? Also, how can a man claim that her wife raped her?
2006-10-28 10:14:23 · 22 answers · asked by Nyatonga J 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Of course it's not possible...you're married!
2006-10-28 10:38:32 · answer #1 · answered by X 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes, unfortunately rape is possible in a marriage. No matter what it says in any holy book, a husband is to always respect his wife and her will to give or not give sex. He cannot take or demand sex from his wife when he wants without her consent and willing agreement to do so. If he does than this is considered rape and it should be treated as a serious real crime. There is no excuse for a man to rape his wife. He can use his hand and watch porn to pleasure himself if the wife is not in the mood or willing to give sex. If the wife appears to not ever want to give sex, than a man has a right to a divorce so that he can find a partner that is more in agreement with his sexual desires.
2016-05-22 03:42:09 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I did not know that sex was a Primary aim in marriage, but everyone has their own goals. Marriage is Not all about sex. It is a commitment to each other. And that means seeing the other person point of view, be it a headache or "I don't want to have sex."
As for rape in a marriage, yes it can happen, has been tried in a court of law and the perpetrator was found guilty. The bottom line comes down NO means NO, single divorced, male, female!
Best of luck to you.
2006-10-28 10:21:27 · answer #3 · answered by ferretcoach 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I just saw a show on TV recently regarding your question. I will answer you from the experts advise I watched. Yes it is possible. Non-consent sex, the forcing of any sex act is called rape, it could be from either partner. You are not correct where you state the primary aim of marriage is to have sex anywhere, anytime, it must be agreed upon by both partners.
2006-10-28 10:18:07 · answer #4 · answered by bonbon 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Rape is anytime a person is forced to have sex without his or her consent. Just because two people are married does not mean that they can't say no. Therefore, a man can rape his wife. A woman can also force herself on a man although it is not as common.
2006-10-28 10:46:45 · answer #5 · answered by A 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Anytime you say no it's rape. Yes it's a "duty" to have sex when the other wants it but what if she just had surgery and didn't feel like it because of the situation, he jumps her and has his way, wouldn't that be rape? Same applies to the man. What a lot of people don't know is that men become erect even when not in the mood, so it would be fairly easy for a woman to have her way even if he wasn't in to it.
2006-10-28 10:32:53 · answer #6 · answered by ~*~frankie~*~ 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
If the man or woman says NO and they continues to force the other into having sex with them then that is rape. I think it would be rather hard to tell someone that you have been raped by a woman because men get aroused and you cannot rape a man if he is not aroused.
2006-10-28 11:12:03 · answer #7 · answered by luvlisteningtomusic 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
your wrong on that one
sex is no longer the elusivne domain of he married, so yes you can claim rape inside of a marriage, though it's not easy, due to the fact that they will be those who believe that sex inside of a marriage is a given constant, and that someone claiming rape may instead be a prude or have antidotial attitude toward sex, and thus the claim may backfire on them, but rape is not about sex, it's about raw forced power and domination, and to go into a marriage where on is dominated is a hard story for anyone to believe as no one is forced to marry anyone, it's always a consented choice.
2006-10-28 10:23:20 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Rape is forcing somebody into sex without their consent...so yes rape is possible in marriage. If one spouse doesn't want sex and the other does, then if any sex is forced it can be considered rape.
2006-10-28 10:17:29 · answer #9 · answered by ohaqqi 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
yes, because if the husband wants to have sex and the wife doesn't want that but he still forces her into it then she can claim that he raped her because he's going against what she wants.
2006-10-28 11:21:44 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
A man can rape his wife just like he can rape any other woman..
Sex without her consent..
I don't know how a woman could rape a man...
2006-10-28 10:17:27 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋