that has the numbers 1 to 36? Can someone please explain how to figure this out? I don't understand how to do this.
2006-10-28 03:16:55 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
If you place all the four bets on numbers (not on odd/even, red/black etc.), then 4 are the number of favorable numbers for you and 36 is the number of all possible outcomes.
Assuming that all outcomes are equally likely, the probability is 4/36=1/9.
(Normally, there are numbers 0 to 36; in that case, it would be 4/37).
2006-10-28 03:22:38 · answer #1 · answered by ted 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know what is a boardwalk wheel is. It looks like a joint probability question so it is,
(1/36+4/36) - (1/36 x 4/36). Please use a calculator to get the answer.
Explanation: You have 4/36 chances of winning and the one chance of winning from the four.
2006-10-28 14:45:57 · answer #2 · answered by Mathew C 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋