2006-10-27 21:56:30 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Both, They say bribery is a victimless crime,
But I think all there are is victims!
2006-10-27 22:04:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anarchy99 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If i ask u, a man who pluck & eat a posion fruit from a tree & die, who is at fault? Bribery is something to be dealt by the higher authority, even if no taker of bribe exist. But accepting bribe is something individual, which u can make a choice to take it or not. If u do, then u shall be punished.
2006-10-28 05:08:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both. And the punishment should fit the crime.
If a senior government official takes a bribe, they should be executed for treason.
Kublai Khan used to punish corrupt officials by having molten gold poured down their throats. Then when they were dead, the gold could be cut out and returned to the treasury.
2006-10-28 05:03:00 · answer #3 · answered by Jim P 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both
2006-10-28 04:58:00 · answer #4 · answered by ~Erios~ 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Both of them are guilty of breaking the law
2006-10-28 05:03:59 · answer #5 · answered by sosueme534 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both of them.
2006-10-28 04:58:36 · answer #6 · answered by FL Girl 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I totally agree, both.
2006-10-28 04:58:33 · answer #7 · answered by Fuzz 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
of course both.
the one who receives TOLERATES, the one who gives VIOLATES... and both denote NEGATIVE meaning.
2006-10-28 05:04:56 · answer #8 · answered by johnnyboy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both, they are both equally guilty of a crime.
2006-10-28 04:59:42 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes,both
2006-10-28 04:58:22 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋