yes-------if umpire sees it that way............
2006-10-27 20:11:09
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answer #1
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answered by cork 7
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Yes a tie would go to the runner. Why? It is rather obvious. If the runner touches the base at the same time the ball is caught or the tag is made he is ALREADY ON THE BASE and therefore would not be out.
What you've always heard is right. Your friend also is right ( a correction of my previous answer, as in the case of a tie, the runner beats the throw or tag.) Umpires are human and can not view the play in slow motion so they are subject to mistakes. So if on a tie the runner is called out then the umpire did not see it as a tie and blew the call.
POST SCRIPT: For all who are saying "there is no such thing as a tie". This is not the question. Assuming that there is a tie, which the asker is doing. In this case (of a tie)...the runner 'beats" the tag or throw because he is on the base already when the tag or catch is made.
And the reason there is no rule concerning a tie is because every umpire knows that once you safely reach the base you cannot be out. He is safe at second first if he slides past and is tagged out. The same at third. At home, once you touch the plate safely, its a run.
"Tie" goes to the runner!
2006-10-27 20:39:07
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answer #2
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answered by wanna fanna out 2
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Officially there is no such thing as a tie, so it does not go to the fielder or the runner. That is an old backyard baseball rule.
First base has the most close plays for the umpire. Obviously the umpire cannot see both the ball and the foot. The umpire watches the base for the runners foot to strike and listens for the ball to hit the first baseman's glove. That is how the call is made.
2006-10-28 14:46:47
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answer #3
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answered by jpbofohio 6
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Yes, on a forced out, that if the ball gets caught by the baseman at the same time as the runner touches the base, that the tie goes to the runner. Belive I seen tons... of baseball games on TV and at stadiums last night on the World series they said that tie goes to the runner if that's what the ump saw.
P.S my cousin plays for a double A minor league and he told me and I think I would know and also my cousin wouldn't you!?
2006-10-28 01:28:26
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answer #4
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answered by bamskater 2
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Sorry, but I'm afraid your friend is correct.
There is no such thing, it is impossible to tell that a play ended in a literal "tie". This is strictly a judgement call by the umpire, either the runner beat the throw, or he did not.
wanna fanna out's argument makes no sense:
quote: "...If the runner touches the base at the same time the ball is caught or the tag is made he is ALREADY ON THE BASE and therefore would not be out...."
That makes no sense....the question is talking about a tie...
I could transpose this argument to read "... if the runner touches the base at the same time the ball is caught or tag is made THE FIELDER HAS ALREADY TAGGED HIM (or THE FIELDER ALREADY HAS THE BALL) and therefore he would not be safe..."
The fact is, there is no such "rule"...
http://www.sdabu.com/mistakes_main.htm
---5. TIE GOES IN FAVOR OF THE RUNNER---
(MYTH)
DID YOU KNOW that there is NO SUCH RULE that states a "tie" goes in favor of a runner. No way, no how, and certainly no such thing.
RULE FACTS: There is no rule. Rather, common sense and reality prevail. That is, a runner is either safe or out. He has either beat the throw or he hasn't. Period. Besides, it is impossible to determine whether or not there really was a "tie." And if an umpire can see that clearly, then, well---he should get himself a job as an umpire.
Something To Consider: If an umpire explicitly states to the arguing defensive manager that he called the runner safe "Because there was a tie, and ties go in favor of the runner," then that manager has a legitimate right to protest---and will win that protest based on a misapplication of rules---or rather, "non" rules. (And, no, 9.01c does not apply here).
BLUE MISTAKE: Laziness and/or fear of commitment, leading to the inevitable "cop-out" call. Unfortunately for most of us, this "rule" comes from our childhood sandlot days when we had to serve dual roles---as players and umpires. And while most of us could certainly play, it's probably safe to say that none of us knew squat about umpiring, not to mention the rules.
BLUE SOLUTION: Loose this "rule." Make a decision as to whether or not the runner beat the throw. If you are not sure take a guess, then defend it as best you can. Trust me, it will be easier to defend your guess than it will be your absurd argument for a tie.
"Tie" does NOT go to the runner...there is no such thing as a tie.
And while we're on the subject of "rules" that people have no clue about, please also keep in mind that THERE IS NO SUCH RULE THAT STATES THAT THE BATTER-RUNNER IS REQUIRED TO "TURN RIGHT", OR RATHER, INTO FOUL TERRITORY, TO PREVENT HIM FROM BEING TAGGED OUT BEFORE HE'S ABLE TO RETURN TO FIRST BASE ONCE HE/SHE OVERRUNS IT (as long as you don't make an effort, or even fake an effort, to actually run to second).
2006-10-27 22:10:24
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Well it depends on the base home plate tie goes to the runner first base the runner has to beat the ball.
2006-10-27 20:42:46
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answer #6
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answered by K L 2
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yes,the runner has to beat the ball to the baseman on the bag. if if their was a tie rule then why have a umpire.........the peoples rule is that if their is a tie it goes to the runner,because its to close to call,it depends on what the ump sees ,no mater how close it can be its still going to be called out or safe..........
2006-10-27 20:22:06
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answer #7
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answered by bigtime 4
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NO, A TIE DOES NOT GO TO THE RUNNER, BECAUSE
there are no ties. A runner is either safe or out.
The umpire's call shall not be questioned.
2006-10-28 01:52:37
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answer #8
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answered by atomiktwin 3
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Tie always goes to the runner
2006-10-27 20:11:19
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answer #9
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answered by MaMa 05 2
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In baseball there is no such thing as a tie. Usually when it appears as a "tie," the ump will call the runner safe but i've seen it called both ways. I hope I answered your question.
2006-10-27 23:51:08
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answer #10
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answered by bckeys44 2
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A tie is supposed to go to the runner. However it seems that umpire accuracy is about the same as some batting averages or weather forcasts.
2006-10-28 00:24:29
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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