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2006-10-27 12:53:02 · 2 answers · asked by Dave R 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

2 answers

Because you can rewrite exponents in different ways:

m^-2 is the same thing as 1/m^2 (just placing the exponent in the denominator).

That's why m x s^-2 --------------> m/s^2

2006-10-27 13:08:21 · answer #1 · answered by JSAM 5 · 0 0

As one answer put it, these are just two different, but equivalent, ways of writing values in the denominator.

We can show they are equivalent by specifying 1/x^2 and then show it is equal to x^-2. So 1/x^2 = f(x) and f(x) x^-2 = 1 by cross multiplying. In which case x^-2 = 1/f(x) = 1/(1/x^2) = 1/x^2 QED.

2006-10-27 20:17:42 · answer #2 · answered by oldprof 7 · 1 0

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