2006-10-26 18:06:01 · 2 answers · asked by Warren Myers 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
38, which is more than the 17th!
There was a 7 year time requirement on it and many people think that some states, about 5, were counted illegally because they also had expressly defeated it but their names appear as states that ratified it! My state was one that had expressly defeated it!.
The problem is the US Supreme Court has already ruled on the legality though there are many who do not believe it was ratified.
I haven't seen the evidence so I don't know what my opinion would be!!
The other issue with the terms of how a state can't tax as income can't be taxed by definition in the constitution! The 16th changed that portion of the Constitution as far as definition to income!
2006-10-26 18:21:08 · answer #1 · answered by cantcu 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Not enough to pass Constitutional muster. It is interesting to note that the 16th amendment did not confer any new powers of taxation to the government. The "income tax" is a fraud from every angle.
2006-10-26 18:09:01 · answer #2 · answered by Paladin 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋