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It is my understanding that there is not and has never been a modern country called Palestine. The land that makes up what is now Israel was taken form parts of Jordan, Egypt and Lebenon.

2006-10-26 08:37:01 · 7 answers · asked by Fire_God_69 5 in Politics & Government Other - Politics & Government

7 answers

I believe you are correct. The Palestinians were cowards and losers who were ejected from other countries, and are now trying to claim prior ownership. They didn't own a sanitary pot.

A few months ago, I read something written by a former terrorist. He actually and totally believed that Israel was created out of nothing, and they had no prior claim in history to any territory, that they had stolen precious Muslim land.

Living in the States, he eventually learned, wow, that the Old Testament had a lot of historical accuracy and the Hebrews were there thousands of years ago.

This great enlightenment changed his life, and he renounced his terrorist connections.

2006-10-26 08:42:50 · answer #1 · answered by retiredslashescaped1 5 · 0 1

Modern Palestine never survived the 1947 Partition between Israel and Palestine. The territories assigned to Palestine were quickly taken over by Egypt and Jordan.

2006-10-26 08:40:49 · answer #2 · answered by Brand X 6 · 0 1

From Wikipedia:

The term "Palestine" derives from the word Philistine, the name of a non-Semitic ethnic group, who inhabited a smaller area on the southern coast, called Philistia, whose borders approximate the modern Gaza Strip. Philistia encompassed the five cities of Gaza, Ashkelon, Ashdod, Ekron, and Gath. The Egyptian texts of the temple at Medinet Habu, record a people called the P-r-s-t (conventionally Peleset), one of the Sea Peoples who invaded Egypt in Ramesses III's reign. This is considered very likely to be a reference to the Philistines. The Hebrew name Peleshet (Hebrew: פלשת Pəléshseth), usually translated as Philistia in English, is used in the Bible to denote their southern coastal region. The Assyrian emperor Sargon II called it the Palashtu in his Annals. The Philistines seem to have disappeared as a distinct ethnic group by the Assyrian period, however the name of their land remained. During the Persian Period, the Greek form was first used in the 5th century BCE by Herodotus who wrote of a "district of Syria, called Palaistinêi" (whence Latin: Palaestina, whence English: Palestine). The boundaries of the area he referred to were not explicitly stated, but Josephus used the name only for the smaller coastal area, Philistia. Ptolemy also used the term. In Latin, Pliny mentions a region of Syria that was "formerly called Palaestina" among the areas of the Eastern Mediterranean.

During the Roman Period, the Province of Judea (including Samaria) covered most of Israel and the Palestinian territories. But following the Bar Kokhba rebellion, the Romans redrew these borders into the new Provinces of Syria Palestine (Latin: Syria Palaestina) (including Judea) and Samaria.

During the Byzantine Period, this entire region (including Syria Palestine, Samaria, and Galilee) was renamed Palaestina and then subdivided into Diocese I and II. The Byzantines also renamed an area of land including the Negev, Sinai, and the west coast of the Arabian Peninsula as Palaestina Salutoris, sometimes called Palaestina III. Since the Byzantine Period, the Byzantine borders of Palaestina (I and II) have served as a name for the geographic area between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea.

2006-10-26 08:43:12 · answer #3 · answered by ontarioemperor 1 · 1 0

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Palestine

2006-10-26 08:42:41 · answer #4 · answered by romulusnr 5 · 1 0

in the countries of canaan and phoenicia

2006-10-26 08:44:34 · answer #5 · answered by Kurt Cobain2 2 · 0 0

isreal

2006-10-26 08:40:22 · answer #6 · answered by antichrist brother555666 2 · 1 2

STUPID ISREAL LOSERS

2006-10-26 08:45:32 · answer #7 · answered by poison 2 · 2 0

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