2006-10-26 01:02:32 · 6 answers · asked by bootylicious_1969 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Afraid so.
2006-10-26 03:07:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both of their earnings are considered by the courts, but its not always right either way
2006-10-26 08:07:07 · answer #2 · answered by a1_friend64 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes I think they are, but check with someone who knows more than I do! lol Perhaps Citizens Advice, DSS or a Solicitor.
2006-10-26 08:05:51 · answer #3 · answered by huggz 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it depends on the state.....in AL, the wifes earnings are considered, as far as I know.......
2006-10-26 08:09:56 · answer #4 · answered by honey_bear_21_1999 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
for years and years all the men hear are the women want to be equal to them and marrage is a 50 50 deal, so??????????? why ask that, pay your 50- %
and reather than sending me nasty e-mails tell people its not for you, but i think it is and my answer stands
2006-10-26 08:16:11 · answer #5 · answered by bluelitttt 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
absolutely
2006-10-26 08:05:58 · answer #6 · answered by Mean Carleen 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋