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One problem I'm encountering in the works of Socrates is that I'm never sure if his dialectical method reflect his true intentions: that is, I'm uncertain as to whether he just wanted to expose the interlocuter's contradictions, or if he really WAS trying to come to sound philosophical conclusions ...

2006-10-24 18:26:15 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

9 answers

Why not both?

For example, in the Euthyphro, Socrates asks Euthyphro (a generally regarded holy man), what piety is. In this case, Socrates truly wants to know what piety is, because he is about to go to trial on charges of impiety. If he knew what piety was, he would be able to defend himself, and point out how he was pious. There is ample motivation there. However, no conclusion is reached, because Euthyphro could not give a sound logical casue for impiety. If however, when Socrates showed the contradictions to Euthryphro, and Euthyphro then was able to find a true logical cause for piety which Socrates could find no wrong with, Socrates would have been overjoyed, and been able to face his trial with this knowledge.

Hope that helps.

*Edit*
In response to the post below, I would like to point out that most illuminati groups have no verifiable identification anywhere before the 1700's, when they were formed as a sect within the Freemasons. Although some Illuminati groups trace their roots back to the Knights Templar, or even early Gnostic tradition, the Knights Templar were not formed untill after the first crusade, at the begining of the millenium. Similarly, Gnosticism was a product of the first few hundred years A.D. Thus Pythagorus and Plato lived hundreds of years before when even the wildest illuminati group claims its origins.

2006-10-24 18:34:58 · answer #1 · answered by azurephilosopher 1 · 0 0

That should not concern you even the least. It is for you to come to your own conclusions for which you need to ponder over the ideas, even contradictions that you come across while reading Socrates or any one else. It does not matter whether he wanted to learn or unlearn - in the ultimate analysis, you only learn something new by unlearning something old.

2006-10-24 18:39:43 · answer #2 · answered by small 7 · 0 0

Socrates was seeking the truth in all things, and the reasons for
why really (And truly) things are what they are.
He used dialogs to get to some conclusions, including ridicule, and deliberate unreasonable assumptions to lead to the truth. When his partner(s) and him reached an agreement, it was considered an advance toward the truth.

2006-10-24 18:47:07 · answer #3 · answered by Daystar 2 · 0 0

you need to sit on a rock with your chin in your hand,
Socrates was an Illuminati .what ever he said it was for manipulation cleverly hidden amongst promises of enlightenment.
all of these guys at the end of the day had a lot of power,that is the essence
Plato ,Pythagoras etc. all had privileged information way ahead of their time like Leonardo da Vinci as well as historical data beyond the publics knowledge

2006-10-24 18:36:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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2016-12-08 20:49:06 · answer #5 · answered by bremmer 4 · 0 0

I think the object is to bring the interlocter to come to sound philosphical conclusions. It's really just challenging the speaker so he or she has to make logical conclusions. If you are playing the part of the challenger, you're not really trying to get at the truth yourself, but trying to lead your opponent to his or her own (logical and defensible) truth.

2006-10-24 18:29:44 · answer #6 · answered by bks33691 2 · 0 0

Socrates was just having fun.

2006-10-25 01:24:22 · answer #7 · answered by ShinningStar 2 · 0 0

Read Meno.
You will see a definite whole hearted teaching

2006-10-24 18:44:08 · answer #8 · answered by hq3 6 · 0 0

Did he want to learn or teach?

2006-10-24 18:33:58 · answer #9 · answered by hardtoy99 2 · 0 0

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