Is there a way to prove this using only the definition of the derivative (that is, the difference quotient)?
All help is greatly appreciated.
2006-10-24
17:36:18
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3 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
thank you scott, I eventually got the same answer, although my process was extremely longer.
To those who used the quotient rule - I appreciate your time; however, I must do this by using the DEFINITION OF DERIVATIVE, or DIFFERENCE QUOTIENT.
Thank you all for your time!
2006-10-24
18:22:13 ·
update #1