a2= a*a
b2 = b*b
then by logic
aa + bb > 2ab
2006-10-24 17:21:51
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answer #1
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answered by micho 7
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You mean a²+b²â¥2ab, since obviously if a=b, this inequality is not strict. In fact, this inequality holds for all real numbers, not just integers. Consider the following:
a-b is a real number, therefore (a-b)²â¥0. Expanding:
a²-2ab+b²â¥0
a²+b²â¥2ab
With a²+b² > 2ab if aâ b.
2006-10-24 17:22:35
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answer #2
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answered by Pascal 7
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Its simple
for any two numbers a, b you ALWAYS have that (a-b)^2 is >0 (that should in fact be greater than or equal to) because squares are always non negative
but if you expand then you get
a^2-2ab+b^2>0
and hence you get what you want:
a^2 + b^2 > 2ab
2006-10-24 17:20:09
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answer #3
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answered by cmadame 3
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Only for two NONEQUAL integers
if a > b
(a-b)^2 >0
a^2-2ab+b^2>0
a^2 + b^2 > 2ab
a
You get the same result if b>a, (b-a)^2 >0
If a=b
a^2 + b^2 > 2ab
a^2 + a^2 .> 2aa
2a^2 > 2a^2 (clearly false)
2006-10-24 17:44:29
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answer #4
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answered by novangelis 7
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Your teachers and professors are stupid beyond belief. Rather than asking you to show that for any two real numbers, a^2 + b^2 can never be less than 2ab, they ask you to prove the above which is obviously false.
A reason most students hate math is because they have incompetent teachers/professors. The problem lies mostly with teachers in most cases as I have personally observed.
My belief is that if you can't explain given knowledge, then it is doubtful that you understand it and thus you should not be teaching it.
I suggest you go back to your teacher and ask him to prove that a^2 + b^2 cannot be less than 2ab. Let him/her break his/her stupid head over this proof.
2006-10-24 18:53:25
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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a^2 + b^2 > 2ab
is equivalent to
a^2 + b^2 -2ab> 0
(a-b)^2>0
but this is NOT true, since a=b would give (a-b)^2=0,
on the other hand, if you include the 0,
i.e.
a^2 + b^2 > = 2ab
then it is true, since it is equivalent to
(a-b)^2>=0, and this is always true, since a square is always positive
2006-10-24 18:24:03
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answer #6
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answered by locuaz 7
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It's not true. because if a and b both = 1 you have 2>2 which is not true.
2006-10-24 17:20:18
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answer #7
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answered by mrkitties420 4
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If a and b=0, then you get 0>0 , which is not true.
2006-10-24 17:32:44
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answer #8
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answered by futureastronaut1 3
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for any a ,b Ð R
(a - b )² ⥠0
a² - 2ab + b² ⥠0
a² + b² ⥠2ab
2006-10-24 17:33:59
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answer #9
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answered by M. Abuhelwa 5
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