If an autosome is present in only one copy at conception, that individual will not develop to term. Yet human males have only one copy of the X chromosome and they do develop normally. Why the difference? Discuss.
2006-10-24 12:36:44 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
The ovum and sperm are haploid cells.Each ovum is haploid and so is the sperm.This means that an ovum has a one set of autosomes, and the same is case with the sperm.With regard to the sex chromosome, the ovum always has one x , and the sperm has either x or y. For conception to occur the ovum must be fertilized by a sperm. Once this happens, diploidy is restored. The zygote undergoes mitotic division to produce the embryo and later on the adult. SO each newborn is diploid. The embryo is diploid with respect to sex chromosomes as well, as it either has xx or xy. In case of xy, the sex chromosomes are in diploid condition in the sense that for the x chromosome, its counterpart y is the inert homologue. So the question of having single x does not arise. However, in case of abnormality called Turner syndrome, there is no y counterpart; in which case the person develops into a female with certain abnormalities.
2006-10-24 13:38:15 · answer #1 · answered by Ishan26 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You may wish to rephrase your question.
An autosome in not either X or Y sex chromosome.
In addition the definition implicitly suggests that both copies are present.
2006-10-24 13:07:29 · answer #2 · answered by dumbdumb 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They have X and Y chromosomes.
2006-10-24 17:25:32 · answer #3 · answered by Meeto 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wow.... you know absolutely nothing about cellular biology.
2006-10-24 12:39:39 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
.l..
2006-10-27 19:06:06 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋