If you take the integral of 1/x from 1 to infinity, it is an undefined integral. But when you find the rotational volume of 1/x around the x-axis you come up with a finite number (3.14). Why is it that the value under the graph can be undefined when the volume if defined perfectly well?
2006-10-24
04:35:36
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2 answers
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asked by
snoboarder2k6
3
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
ok, maybe not perfectly well...
but if you solve both of these cases as improper integrals, the area is still undefined while the rotational volume is pi
2006-10-24
04:52:19 ·
update #1