i think, its partially true.
let a-b=x
no.1=> x^n+nkx-1=0
no.2=> x^2+2cx-1=0
eqn no.1 has n solutions that means a-b has n values for which (a-b)^(n)+nk(a-b)=1
depending on the value of k and n u can get complex results. but u'll certainly get n results.
eqn no. 2 has 2 solutions only that means a-b has 2 values only for which
(a-b)^(2)+2c(a-b)=1
your assumtion is true only in case of n=2, but having other n's will bear other results, and certain conditions cant be found for which u can claim that it is possible only for n=2
[I've have assumed k and c as unequal constants]
2006-10-24 19:40:36
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answer #1
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answered by avik r 2
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The two polynomials are equal only when n=2 and k=c, both are real, however it need not be sufficient condition for it to be true. For eg, if n is not equal to 2 or k and c are complex, then the two polynomials are not equal.
2006-10-24 07:48:00
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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In this case it is true as we can compare the coefficients of the variable terms(assuming c is also a constant like k).
2006-10-24 07:05:33
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answer #3
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answered by sisler 2
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yes thats definately true.
nk = 2c, you're right.
2006-10-24 07:06:33
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answer #4
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answered by thugster17 2
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I think it should be true,to the extent of 100 per cent.
2006-10-24 07:11:05
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answer #5
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answered by suchsi 5
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Yeah it means k=c, since n=2.
2006-10-24 07:10:47
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answer #6
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answered by Sanju_the_gr8 4
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True
2006-10-24 07:18:24
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answer #7
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answered by naveen 1
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Yes its true
2006-10-24 07:02:50
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answer #8
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answered by OriginalBubble 6
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yes it is true
2006-10-24 07:38:49
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answer #9
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answered by c2 brahmin 2
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I dont know what is true.But what i said is true.
2006-10-24 07:03:38
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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