Got married after I bought house, one and half year later we see things may not work out does he own half of my house. His name is not on any paper work. I've made the payments.Will I have to sell and split it with him.
2006-10-23 17:20:43 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Depends on what state you live in. My name is not on "our" house; however, if divorce were an issue...the house would be 1/2 mine if I were to pursue that. I've been married longer than you, but in most states the spouse is entited to 1/2....including 401k since you were married. The law is different in Florida and some other states....be careful....get legal advise!
2006-10-23 18:04:28 · answer #1 · answered by marincaligirl 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You need to see a lawyer, you will also need proof of all your claims. Has you husband paid for anything during the marriage ? All these things will be taken into consideration. The time may arrive when you'll have to decide whether material things are more important than your happiness.
2006-10-24 02:22:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
his name isn't on the paperwork, so the house is yours. But he may ask for the right to half. But the fact that you haven't been married very long the judge might not care about the house.
You made all the payments? hopefully it will be a friendly splitup.
2006-10-24 00:30:02 · answer #3 · answered by clcalifornia 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, if your name is on the lease, the house is yours. I made the mistake of "allowing" my husbands name on practically everything. So, guess what, I didn't get it. I even had "our" joint bank account cleaned out because he got there first. Our house was in BOTH names, so during the divorce, I did get half of that when it was sold.
2006-10-24 00:52:14 · answer #4 · answered by Nancy D 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the house was acquired prior to the marriage, probably not. Do you work, can you prove you made the payments with your own money? If you don't work and it's his salary that pays the mortgage, you may have a different outcome.
I wish you luck.
2006-10-24 00:24:04 · answer #5 · answered by Cinderella 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
he isn't intilted to it but he can get a lawyer and try to get it from you I know my ex tried to sue me for payments on our home i just sold it but went bankrupt to get out of her lawsuit. I would tell you to consult with an lawyer the first time is usually free and some will even answer your question over the phone for free as well good luck to ya sorry things didn't work out
2006-10-24 00:32:18 · answer #6 · answered by yo 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He is entititled to half the appreciation of the property since your marriage....you are entitled to half the appreciation and any downpayment etc you had in the house befor the divorce....all this is negotiable....you may have to pay him for his part of the equity
2006-10-24 08:04:00 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
i am by no means a lawyer but I would say if the house was puchased by you alone prior to the relationship and his name is not part of the mortgage than this was not property established during the relationship or jointly, then you shouldn't have to lose it or sell
2006-10-24 00:27:02 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
you need a will and a pre-nuptual or yea he owns half,at least 25,000 for real.Get a lawyer on this like yesterday.
2006-10-24 00:26:45 · answer #9 · answered by alleycat46534 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually without his name on the contract I don't think so.
2006-10-24 00:24:37 · answer #10 · answered by Barbara H 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋