2006-10-23 10:07:48 · 9 answers · asked by MJ 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
f'(x)=0
2006-10-23 10:31:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
since pi is a constant the derivitive is 0.
2006-10-23 17:10:23 · answer #2 · answered by javaHungerForce 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
0 because f'(x) means you are looking for a derivative and the derivative of any constant number is 0
2006-10-23 17:21:52 · answer #3 · answered by devilishblueyes 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
since f(x)=pi=constant, f'(x)=0
2006-10-23 17:10:28 · answer #4 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0. it just like geting trhe derivative of a constant C
2006-10-23 17:10:36 · answer #5 · answered by Tommy12oz 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0 when a fuction is equal to ANY constant.
2006-10-23 17:31:58 · answer #6 · answered by rhino9joe 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0..
derivative of any constant is zero.
2006-10-23 17:11:26 · answer #7 · answered by jackal_04 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
f'(3.14159) = 0
f'(pi) = p*(di/dx) + i*(dp/dx)
2006-10-23 17:24:52 · answer #8 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
f(x)= pi
then f(x)= 3.14159
2006-10-23 17:11:18 · answer #9 · answered by Foamy H 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋