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I get as far as tan(2x) = 3
...i'm not sure if i just did it wrong, or i just dont know what to do from there...please help...THANKS

2006-10-23 08:25:39 · 3 answers · asked by rachel123go 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

can it be done without using arctan...because i was never taught that...??

2006-10-23 08:53:32 · update #1

3 answers

I am not sure where you got tan(2x)=3. You first need to write tan(3x) in terms of tanx, use the angle addition identity.

Okay answer below is correct, I was too lazy to look it up.

2006-10-23 08:40:59 · answer #1 · answered by raz 5 · 0 0

[tan3x-tanx]/[1+tan3xtanx] = tan(3x-x) = tan(2x), so yes, the original equation is equivalent to tan(2x)=3.

If we assume -pi/2 < 2x < pi/2, then 2x = arctan(3), so x = arctan(3)/2 is one solution.

The set of all solutions is x = arctan(3)/2 + k*pi/2, for any integer k, since then tan(2x) = tan(arctan(3) + k*pi), and tan(t+k*pi) = tan(t) for any integer k and any angle t.

2006-10-23 15:45:16 · answer #2 · answered by James L 5 · 1 0

Alternative (much harder!) method:

Convert the equation into:

tan 3x = expression in tan x

Expand tan 3x using addition formula (twice) for tan(A+B) to get

expression in tan x = expression in tan x

Let t = tan x, and you should get

3t^4 + 2t^3 + 2t - 3 = 0

Factorise: ( t² + 1 ) ( 3t² + 2t - 3 ) = 0

etc...... to get x = 0.63 and x = -0.95 (approx) together with appropriate multiples of π/2.

Reconcile with the easy method [ atan(3)/2 ], after showing that

2 atan( (√10 - 1 ) / 3 ) = atan( 3 ).

2006-10-23 16:05:00 · answer #3 · answered by p_ne_np 3 · 0 0

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