These points have a special name and I cannot seem to find the answer anywhere!
2006-10-23 06:42:07 · 5 answers · asked by niknak2two 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
inflection point
2006-10-23 07:34:33 · answer #1 · answered by Denny 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I disagree with the different individual's answer. First check out the equation. it somewhat is undefined for t=0. there's a vertical asymptote at x=0. So finding on the 2d spinoff, g"(t)= 2 - 2/(t^3). in case you positioned the 2d spinoff equivalent to 0, it somewhat is g"(t)=0, then you definately get t=a million for the inflection factor. Now in case you are trying by way of plugging a value in each and each of those durations (damaging infinity, 0) , (0,a million) , (a million, advantageous infinity) into the 2d spinoff, then you definately see which g" value is advantageous to work out that that era is concave up. If g" is damaging, that era is concave down. so which you easily see that the 1st era is concave up, 2d era is concave down, 0.33 era is concave up.
2016-12-08 19:43:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Inflection point. Points where concave up becomes concave down are also called inflection points.
2006-10-23 06:51:52 · answer #3 · answered by Steiner 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Inflecion point.
2006-10-23 06:43:21 · answer #4 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
anda pecho frio!!!
2006-10-23 06:45:18 · answer #5 · answered by Jen_l 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋