copyright question?

Question

If someone wrote a rhyme in, say, 1799, and then someone now wanted to put a tune to it and perform it as a song, where would they stand on copyright?

Answer 1

UK rights cover a piece of work for 75 years AFTER the death of the asserted author. In this instance it would be okay to use the work, without payment of copyright fees, but do not try to pass the work of as your own. You must acknowledge the source material. Then you would be able to copyright the tune yourself.

But it also depends on what you then want to do with this song. For your own amusement there would be no worries, but if you wanted it to go further, make sure that you lodge a time/dated copy with a solicitor, or approach a publishing house to publishi t for you.
For example, Time-Warner own the rights to the tune 'Happy Birthday'. Every time someone sings that without paying royalty fees to Warner Bros they are breaking the law.

Answer 2

Don't worry. By all means have at it. Copywrite expires 75 years after the death of the author. Anything written in 1799 is safely in the "Public Domain," which means you get to use it without paying any royalties.

Answer 3

In most countries copyright expires around 50-75 years after the death of the author, so you should be fine.

Answer 4

What the previous answerers have said is correct HOWEVER make sure the copyright has not been renewed by the publishers or any living relative at the time of expiry of the 50-75 year clauses

Answer 5

The rhyme itself would be public domain. The tune would probably be copyrighted to the songwriter.

Answer 6

If its 1799 whatever copyright they might have had probably long expired. I wouldn't worry about it.

Answer 7

Well, the individual work would be considered public domain. However the artists interpretation of it can be copywrite.

Answer 8

no, the copyright designs and patent act only covers uk literary work for 50 years. Go for it