Liberty and equality, are they directly or inversly related? What implications does this have?

Answer 1

It seems that historically they have been inversly related. Considering the time of feudalism, things were fairly equal for most people within a respective class. If you were a serf, you had the same set of rights with other serfs, with somewhat similar distinctions for nobility. As captialism has emerged it has necesitated an increased individuality in order to continue to function as a system. In order to properly, in economic terms, apply ones individuality it would seem a higher degree of liberty is required. However as capitalism has also showed, with an enhanced freedom for some there has been a payment by "the masses" so to speak. Though one could make an argument that the lower and underclasses all have a similar set of life chances, it would seem this is a much greater contrast in terms of equality than between serfs in the middle ages. Even more so than the serf-nobility design as oaths of allegiance arent really required for those with the most freedom, the transnational investors.

So, to make a long story short id argue historically they are inversly related and continue to appear so. Economically people are gaining incredible amounts of freedom at the top of the system, while equality (at least in terms of the income gap) is continuing to grow. Implications are fairly numerous depending on what your looking for but the simplest would seem to be, as long as high capitalism continues, so will the divide between the elites and most everyone else.

Answer 2

Yes, they are inversely related. The only way for people to not interfere with others rights, is for no one to have rights.