2006-10-22 17:18:03 · 9 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Yes, absence of difference could be consequential, where as equivalence is about the existing state !
2006-10-22 18:50:28 · answer #1 · answered by Spiritualseeker 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What are you referring to?
2006-10-22 17:20:43 · answer #2 · answered by mojo2093@sbcglobal.net 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes! Absolutely! If two things have no difference between them, then they, according to aristotilian and modern logic, are the same. That is, if A is not not-B, then A is B. This is the principle of identity, A = A, a thing is what it is. IF a thing is not different from something else , it is the same as this, also a thing is the same with itself and not different from itself. Excellent question. I would say more than simply equivalence, but IDENTITY
2006-10-22 17:52:07 · answer #3 · answered by Heidegger 11 30 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Between any two arbitrary things, there are both, differences and similarities.
For example what is the difference between human and stone?
Movement and non-movement
What can be similarity between human and stone?
Both available in different colours in different places!
So it is impossible to say that any two arbitrary things are similar or different. It is the way we look at them.
2006-10-22 20:17:47 · answer #4 · answered by Mathiyan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes you are absolutely correct.
2006-10-22 17:21:58 · answer #5 · answered by Devaraj A 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if there is no difference, then it means there is a lot of equilvalance between the ideas or things you are referring to.
2006-10-22 17:21:10 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there is no difference, then there is only one.
2006-10-22 17:34:55 · answer #7 · answered by ? 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there should always be equivalence.
2006-10-22 17:26:15 · answer #8 · answered by Danigirl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Same are similar-similar no same!
Ciao......John-John.
2006-10-23 08:46:25 · answer #9 · answered by John-John 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋