2006-10-22 17:07:14 · 11 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Nope.
There must be a difference if there is no equivalence.
That would be correct.
2006-10-22 17:08:55 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
Equivalence means perfect interchangability. If your bicycle breaks, and you buy a replacement part, it is a replacement if it does all the things the original did. If its function is identical, then it is a function equivalent or a mechanical equivalent part.
Difference means a place of loss of identicality. It a measured incongruity or lack of same-ness. If your bicycle tire went flat, and you bought a replacement tire that was meant for an automobile, then the difference could make your replacement part not work.
A difference is the opposite of an equivalence. They are antonyms. The statement is therefore incorrect.
2006-10-23 00:18:04 · answer #2 · answered by Curly 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
think of it this way in math the difference between 7 and 3 is 4
or 7-3=4
if there is no difference there must be equavilence. Or wait the difference between 7and 7 is 0
So if there is no difference, there is no equivalence makes sense in that way.
If you put it in to terms of = being equivelence.
unfortunately i don't think the math metaphor works here.
If there is no difference then there is equivalence.
because 7=7
now you have me confused;)
2006-10-23 00:23:05 · answer #3 · answered by Grev 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
One supposes that your viewpoint is that there must always be a diametric opposite to every instance; no heaven w/out hell, no good w/out evil. As these are simply opinions and/or theories, and unproven as absolutes, this could not be considered a correct statement.
I really love philosophy!
2006-10-23 00:15:27 · answer #4 · answered by therealme 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Equivalence is like the same thing and difference is like a dissimilarity or distinctive dispute, not the same. So i would say, supposedly, to your posed question. Good one.
God bless us all...
2006-10-23 00:20:21 · answer #5 · answered by lee f 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Incorrect.
EQUIVALENCE = sameness = NO DIFFERENCE
No difference would mean equivalence, not 'NO equivalence'
2006-10-23 00:18:08 · answer #6 · answered by weaver_gang 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think you are right. we tend to differentiate similar things . LIke we dont compare, human psychology with physics.
2006-10-23 00:16:21 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well that's just silly, if it's not equivilant, then there's something different, what kind of silly bint told you that?
2006-10-23 00:14:38 · answer #8 · answered by thalog482 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
then nothing is correct if you do not have something wrong.
2006-10-23 00:17:19 · answer #9 · answered by tazachusetts 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if there is no equivelence then there is a difference
2006-10-23 00:08:44 · answer #10 · answered by jujubeee 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋